PSY 123 Questions Guide to read textbook chapters 11 to 15
Circle the letter with the correct answer. One answer per
question
1. _____ theories of personality emphasize the development
of personality early in life.
A) Psychoanalytic
B) Trait
C) Behavioral
D) Humanistic
2. In Freud’s view, the LEAST conscious component of the
mind is the:
A) subconscious.
B) id.
C) ego.
D) superego.
3. Psychoanalytic theory states that defense mechanisms are
the job of the:
A) subconscious.
B) id.
C) ego.
D) superego.
4. During the _____ stage of psychosexual development,
conflict may surround _____.
A) oral; weaning
B) anal;
autoeroticism
C) phallic; toilet
training
D) oral;
autoeroticism
5. In Jung’s theory, archetypes are contained in the:
A) collective
unconscious.
B) preconscious mind.
C) conscious mind.
D) personal
unconscious.
6. Tatiana is patient and nonjudgmental. She is original,
spontaneous, and flexible. In Maslow’s terms, Tatiana appears to have a(n)
_____ personality.
A) transcendent
B) self-actualized
C) archetypal
D) ideal
7. According to _____, conditions of worth hamper a person’s
self-development.
A) Carl Rogers
B) Abraham Maslow
C) Alfred Adler
D) Julian Rotter
8. Sascha believes that his own efforts will ultimately
determine whether he finds a good job in his field of study. Sascha appears to
have an _____ locus of control.
A) extrinsic
B) ambiguous
C) external
D) internal
9. A statistical procedure that uncovers the basic
dimensions underlying the relationships among many variables is known as _____
analysis.
A) matrix
B) trend
C) factor
D) research
10. Shannon is active, sociable, and outgoing. Eysenck might
describe Shannon as high in:
A) neuroticism.
B) psychoticism.
C) conscientiousness.
D) extraversion.
11. In the five-factor model of personality, the term _____
refers to how trusting and easygoing a person is.
A) openness
B) conscientiousness
C) extraversion
D) agreeableness
12. A test that is high in reliability:
A) was developed
using representative samples.
B) yields consistent
scores.
C) is scored in a
uniform, standardized way.
D) measures what it
is intended to measure.
13. Of the personality tests reviewed in the textbook, the
_____ is scored in an objective, standardized way.
A) Rorschach Inkblot
Test
B) Minnesota
Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C) Thematic
Apperception Test
D) Big Five
14. _____ created the Sixteen Personality Factor
Questionnaire.
A) Gordon Allport
B) Henry Murray
C) Hans Eysenck
D) Raymond Cattell
15. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
contains:
A) 185
multiple-choice questions.
B) 20 ambiguous pictures.
C) 338 true-false
items.
D) a series of
inkblots.
16. According to the textbook, the Myers–Briggs Type
Indicator is:
A) reliable but not
valid since people tend to get the same result when retested.
B) valid but lacks
reliability since test results tend to correlate with job success.
C) both reliable and
valid since test results are replicable and accurately predict career choice.
D) neither valid nor
reliable since it is a poor predictor of job success and people can end up with
different results each time they are tested.
17. _____ is the process of cultural adjustment and
adaptation, including changes to one’s language, values, cultural behaviors,
and sometimes national identity.
A) Cultural
polarization
B) Cultural
differentiation
C) Deculturalization
D) Acculturation
18. According to the _____ hypothesis, _____.
A) stress
inoculation; moderate stress can be beneficial
B) stress
inoculation; only extreme stress can impair health
C) general
adaptation; moderate stress can be beneficial
D) general
adaptation; only extreme stress can impair health
19. A man awaiting the birth of his first child is BEST
described as experiencing:
A) no stress.
B) posttraumatic
stress disorder.
C) distress.
D) eustress.
20. _____ are experiences that are positive and have the
potential to make one happy.
A) Uplifts
B) Hassles
C) Reflexes
D) Stressors
21. In an _____ conflict, two or more favorable alternatives
are pitted against each other.
A) approach–avoidance
B) approach–approach
C)
avoidance–avoidance
D)
avoidance–attribution
22. The _____ system oversees the sympathetic nervous
system’s response to stress.
A)
hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal
B)
hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid
C)
hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal
D)
hypothalamic–neurohypophyseal
23. The FIRST stage in the general adaptation syndrome is
that of: alarm. One is MOST susceptible to illness during the _____ stage of
the general adaptation syndrome.
A) exhaustion
B) resistance
C) alarm
D) reaction
24. When disease-causing invaders threaten the body, the
immune system deploys a special army of white blood cells called:
A) megakaryocytes.
B) astrocytes.
C) lymphocytes.
D) dendrites.
25. _____ refers to emotional, mental, and physical fatigue
that results from repeated exposure to challenges, leading to reduced
motivation, enthusiasm, and performance.
A) Conflict
B) Hardiness
C) Closure
D) Burnout
26. _____ refers to the cognitive, behavioral, and emotional
abilities used to manage something that is perceived as difficult or
challenging.
A) Shaping
B) Encoding
C) Coping
D) Chunking
27. When bad things happen to him, Joe lists all the good
things in his life that he is thankful for. Joe’s practice exemplifies _____
coping.
A) primary
B) problem-focused
C) secondary
D) emotion-focused
28. Aggressive is to anxious as the Type _____ personality
is to the Type _____ personality.
A) A; B
B) A; D
C) D; A
D) D; B
29. _____ is NOT among the “3 Cs” of hardiness.
A) Commitment
B) Control
C) Challenge
D) Coping
30. Claire extends her left calf then relaxes it,
concentrating on the tension leaving that area of her body as she does so.
Claire then tenses and relaxes her left quadriceps, again noting the flow of
tension from the area. Claire is engaged in:
A) systematic
desensitization.
B) meditation.
C) biofeedback.
D) progressive muscle
relaxation.
31. Edmund Jacobson introduced a technique known as:
A) progressive muscle
relaxation.
B) systematic
desensitization.
C) aversion therapy.
D) biofeedback.
32. Abusing alcohol is against one’s best interests. Alcohol
abuse is therefore considered:
A) atypical.
B) maladaptive.
C) distressing.
D) deviant.
33. _____ is a legal determination of the degree to which a
person is responsible for his criminal behaviors.
A) Insanity
B) Heritability
C) Hardiness
D) Conscientiousness
34. A(n) _____ is a negative attitude about a group of
individuals based on a characteristic they share, such as a psychological
disorder.
A) stigma
B) appraisal
C) schema
D) bias
35. The first version of the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders was published in the:
A) 1940s.
B) 1950s.
C) 1960s.
D) 1970s.
36. Russell has been diagnosed with both bipolar disorder
and a substance use disorder. Russell’s case illustrates:
A) etiology.
B) comorbidity.
C) prevalence.
D) concomitance.
37. Aidan is sweating and nauseous. His heart is racing, and
he feels as if he might die. Aidan is suffering from:
A) panic disorder.
B) social anxiety
disorder.
C) specific phobia.
D) generalized
anxiety disorder.
38. Research indicates that people with panic disorder may
have an unusually small:
A) hippocampus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) thalamus.
D) amygdala.
39. Sally dreads making presentations at work; she feels
intensely afraid that her coworkers are evaluating her negatively. She is also
apprehensive when she visits restaurants because she believes the other diners
are scrutinizing her. Sally seems to suffer from:
A) panic disorder.
B) specific phobia.
C) generalized
anxiety disorder.
D) social phobia.
40. Muscle tension and restlessness often accompany:
A) panic disorder.
B) specific phobia.
C) generalized
anxiety disorder.
D) social phobia.
41. Since they provide relief from intrusive, unwanted
obsessions, compulsions are maintained by:
A) negative
punishment.
B) negative
reinforcement.
C) positive
punishment.
D) positive
reinforcement.
42. Zane has been feeling low for the past month or so. He
has little energy and difficulty concentrating. He has gained nearly 10 pounds
and sleeps 10 to 11 hours each night. Zane may be diagnosed with _____
disorder.
A) persistent
depressive
B) bipolar
C) major depressive
D) generalized
anxiety
43. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Major depression
is much more prevalent among men than women.
B) Major depression
is somewhat more prevalent among men than women.
C) Major depression
is equally prevalent among men and women.
D) Major depression
is more prevalent among women than men.
44. Bipolar I disorder is to bipolar II disorder as _____ is
to _____.
A) dysthymia;
hypomania
B) dysthymia; major
depression
C) hypomania; mania
D) mania; hypomania
45. The MOST common hallucinations in schizophrenia are
auditory. People with schizophrenia often experience hallucinations, which are:
A) perceptual
experiences that are not real.
B) repetitive,
intrusive thoughts or urges.
C) delusions of
grandeur.
D) behaviors that are
repeated over and over.
46. Which choice MOST accurately expresses the lifetime
prevalence of schizophrenia in the general population?
A) less than 0.1%
B) less than 1%
C) about 2%
D) about 5%
47. Criminal behaviors are MOST closely associated with
antisocial personality disorder. Detachment from one’s relationships and a
limited range of emotional expression are characteristic of _____ personality
disorder.
A) paranoid
B) schizoid
C) antisocial
D) avoidant
48. _____ is an eating disorder identified by significant
weight loss, an intense fear of being overweight, a false sense of body image,
and a refusal to eat the proper amount of calories to achieve a healthy weight.
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Bulimia nervosa
C) Muscle dysmorphia
D) Binge-eating
disorder
49. Deinstitutionalization of the mentally ill began in the:
A) 1920s.
B) 1930s.
C) 1940s.
D) 1950s.
50. Insight therapies are a type of psychotherapy aimed at
increasing awareness of self and the environment. A(n) _____ approach to
therapy combines and integrates multiple perspectives.
A) biomedical
B) insight
C) eclectic
D) behavioral
51. _____, a _____ theorist, developed person-centered
therapy.
A) Albert Ellis;
cognitive
B) Albert Ellis;
humanistic
C) Carl Rogers;
cognitive
D) Carl Rogers;
humanistic
52. A client’s strong verbal ability and high level of
self-awareness are LEAST necessary for the success of humanistic therapy. The therapeutic alliance does NOT
include:
A) agreeableness.
B) empathy.
C) genuineness.
D) active listening.
53. Systematic desensitization entails a combination of
exposure therapy and an anxiety hierarchy. Cam is seeking help for his alcohol
abuse. He consults a behavior therapist, who might recommend:
A) systematic
desensitization.
B) aversion therapy.
C) flooding.
D) a token economy.
54. The ABC model is a feature of _____ therapy, developed
by _____.
A) cognitive; Aaron
Beck
B) cognitive; Albert
Ellis
C) rational emotive
behavioral; Aaron Beck
D) rational emotive
behavioral; Albert Ellis
55. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Family therapy
treats the family as an integrated system.
B) Family therapy
treats the symptoms of specific disorders.
C) The course of
family therapy is fairly lengthy.
D) Family therapy
originated in the 1970s.
56. Psychological treatment involving the Internet is MOST
often called:
A) virtual therapy.
B) systematic
desensitization.
C) e-therapy.
D) robotherapy.
57. A research assistant is debriefing her participants. The
research assistant is:
A) randomly assigning
the participants to conditions.
B) telling
participants about any deception used in the study.
C) telling
participants that their participation is voluntary.
D) deceiving her
participants.
58. People develop _____ when they generate an explanation
for their own or others’ behavior.
A) appraisals
B) attitudes
C) attributions
D) inferences
59. Mrs. Parker visits a neighbor’s home for the first time.
The house is cluttered and poorly kept. Mrs. Parker does not consider that her
neighbor may be juggling two jobs, a lengthy commute, and the demands of child
care. Instead, she simply concludes that her neighbor is a slob. Mrs. Parker is
illustrating the:
A) fundamental
attribution error.
B) just-world
hypothesis.
C) false consensus
effect.
D) self-serving bias.
60. Which example BEST illustrates cognitive dissonance?
A) Braden pulls over
in his car when a police officer tells him to do so.
B) Julie assumes her
friend is “being flaky” when she forgets a lunch date.
C) Boris dances at a
party to feel accepted by the other guests.
D) Stephanie tells
herself that smoking is okay because she only smokes a few cigarettes daily.
61. Fear-inducing messages can increase persuasion: People
are MOST persuadable when they are:
A) depressed.
B) bored.
C) hungry.
D) happy.
62. People may be more willing to grant a large favor if
they have already granted a smaller one. This is the _____ technique.
A) door-in-the-face
B) false consensus
C) self-serving
D) foot-in-the-door
63. The pioneering
“line-length” studies of conformity were conducted by Solomon Asch: During the
Nuremberg trials in the 1960s, Nazi officers argued that they were “just
following orders,” in an attempt to shift responsibility for the deaths of
millions of Jews to their superiors. Findings from which researcher would
support this defense?
A) Ajzen
B) Sternberg
C) Asch
D) Milgram
64. In moderately dangerous situations, the likelihood that
a victim will receive help is _____ related to the number of bystanders
present. In extremely dangerous situations, the likelihood that a victim will
receive help is _____ related to the number of bystanders present.
A) negatively;
negatively
B) negatively;
positively
C) positively;
negatively
D) positively;
positively
65. The textbook states that “[because] females run a
greater risk of bodily injury resulting from a physical confrontation . . .
they tend to opt for more relational aggression.” This statement is MOST
closely consistent with the evolutionary perspective in psychology.The
cognitive component of a prejudicial attitude is _____, whereas its affective
component is _____.
A) a stereotype;
prejudice
B) prejudice; a
stereotype
C) discrimination;
prejudice
D) a stereotype;
discrimination
66. Josh and Donna are discussing the latest release by
their favorite band. “I didn’t like it at first, but now that I’ve played it a
few times, I love it!” Donna states. Donna’s remark exemplifies the _____
effect.
A) bystander
B) mere-exposure
C) false consensus
D) foot-in-the-door
67. Applications like
Skype and FaceTime have changed the notion of proximity as a factor involved
interpersonal attraction. Jayne and Richie have been married for 10 years.
However, there is little real intimacy in their relationship; instead, it is
based mainly on their sexual chemistry. Jayne and Richie are experiencing _____
love.
A) companionate
B) consummate
C) fatuous
D) romantic
