Multiple Choice: Circle the letter that corresponds to the
best answer. Remember that this exam is
based on information found in your text as well as some material discussed in
class.
Chapter 5:
01. Which of the following best describes the
role of emotional intelligence in determining outstanding job performance?
A. Emotional intelligence has no impact on job
performance
B. Emotional intelligence has less impact on
job performance than cognitive IQ does.
C. Emotional intelligence and cognitive IQ have
about the same impact on job performance.
D. Emotional intelligence has more impact on
job performance than cognitive IQ does.
02. The principal factor in shaping a
communication climate is the
A. degree to which people feel valued.
B. level of compensation employees receive.
C. degree of human-relations training
management has received.
D. number of messages sent and received.
03. According to the text, which of the
following is NOT recommended when you are attempting to establish confirming
relationships with others in the organizational
setting?
A. Attempt to focus on problem solving.
B. Be as honest as possible.
C. Use evaluative “you” language.
D. Demonstrate concern for others.
04. Which of the following types of statements
is likely to promote a supportive climate?
A. descriptive statements expressed in
“I” language
B. statements that focus on identifying who is
to blame for a problem
C. indifference to coworkers’ needs and
challenges
D. conversations in which both parties accuse
the other
05. According to Jack Gibb’s work on supportive
and defensive communication, a supervisor who
____________ is promoting a disconfirming climate.
A. focuses on solving problems
B. doesn’t show any concern for the feelings
of others
C. listens open-mindedly to opposing
viewpoints
D. treats her subordinates as if they were
equals
06. Attitudes of superiority create
disconfirming climates; attitudes of _______create more confirming
climates
A. indifference
B. evaluation
C. control
D. manipulation
E. equality
07. When offering praise, the text advises you
to
A. praise only the end product.
B. praise in broad sweeping generalizations.
C. praise consistently, even if insincerely.
D. praise only with original comments; don’t
relay praise from others.
E. praise progress, not just perfection.
08. When you are delivering criticism, it’s best
to
A. not worry about the sender of the criticism.
B. accompany your criticism with an offer to
help.
C. use “you” statements so the
person accepts responsibility.
D. talk about the negative aspects of your
relationship, but offer to help if appropriate.
09. All of the following are important elements
of an effective apology except:
A. Explain how you will prevent this mistake
from occurring again.
B. Acknowledge that your actions made the
other person suffer.
C. Suggest how you can compensate the other
person for the damage you did.
D. Save face by providing a credible excuse for
your actions.
10. When confronted with the criticism
“You’re never back from lunch on time,” which of the following
statements acknowledges a critic’s perception as valid, yet does not agree with
the critique?
A. “You’re right; it was after 1:00 when I
returned from lunch.”
B. “You weren’t back on time yourself;
you couldn’t know.”
C. “It must seem like I’m never back on
time. The boss has asked me to cover the phones in his office from 1 – 1:30
every day, so I don’t get back to this office right away.”
D. “You’re partly to blame–you weren’t
back by 12, so I couldn’t leave on time.”
11. Which of the following statements best
describes job-related conflicts?
A. Conflicts should be avoided as much as
possible at work.
B. Conflicts occur most frequently among
less-intelligent employees.
C. Whether a conflict diminishes
organizational effectiveness or improves it depends on how the conflict is
handled.
D. Conflicts occur more frequently between
managers and subordinates than between employees of equal authority.
12. According to your text, which of the
following is the best way to approach conflict?
A. collaboration
B. accommodation
C. competition
D. compromise
E. The best choice of method varies according
to the circumstances.
13. Every time a conflict arises in their group,
Rosie simply denies that a problem exists. Which of the following approaches to
conflict is she using?
A. avoiding
B. accommodating
C. competing
D. compromising
E. collaborating
14. Which approach to conflict are you using if
you sacrifice your own principles for the sake of the group?
A. avoiding
B. accommodating
C. competing
D. compromising
E. collaborating
15. Which of the following approaches is based
on the assumption that in resolving conflict you can meet the needs of all
parties?
A. avoiding
B. accommodating
C. competing
D. collaborating
E. compromising
16. If each party gives a little ground to gain
an agreement that everyone can agree with, which approach to conflict have they
selected?
A. avoiding
B. accommodating
C. competing
D. collaborating
E. compromising
17. Jenny’s work group agrees that in order to
solve the problem that they have been assigned,
they need to divide the work up. However, they are having trouble agreeing on
how to go
about doing that. What category of conflict is this?
A.
The Topic at Hand
B.
The Process
C.
Relational Issues
D.
Ego/Identity Issues
18. Kristel has two free movie passes. She and
Misha are involved in a heated negotiation over which movie they will see.
Kristel gets angry and tears up the passes to teach Misha a lesson. Which of
the following orientations toward conflict has Kristel adopted?
A. win-lose
B. lose-lose
C. compromise
D. win-win
19. When you are preparing to negotiate from a
win-win approach, your should do all of the following except
A. clarify exactly what your interests are.
B. focus on the means you want to use to reach
your goals.
C. consider the best time to raise the issue.
D. plan how to express your needs using
“I” language.
E. consider cultural differences.
Chapter 8:
20. Well-managed work groups offer several
advantages over individual workers. Which of the following is NOT one of the
typical advantages of working in a group?
A. accuracy
B. efficiency
C. productivity
D. enthusiasm
21. The text addressed a number of issues one
must consider when putting together a small group based on the size of its
membership. Which of the following is FALSE, according to the text?
A. Choosing an even number of members will
allow for smoother decision making.
B. Five or seven members are ideal for most
task groups.
C. Large groups are likely to experience
domination by some members and lack of commitment from others.
D. An odd number of members will allow for
smoother decision making.
22. Heather is a member of a group in which each
member brings well-researched, relevant information to each decision-making
meeting. She concludes that without each person’s input, the quality of the
decisions would decrease dramatically. Which of the following characteristics
of groups is Heather identifying in the above example?
A. impact of group size
B. interdependence
C. duration
D. identity
23. According to the text, which of the
following is NOT a requirement of making a group a team?
A. shared goals
B. directive leadership
C. unified commitment
D. competent team members
E. a results-driven structure
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the
characteristics of true teams (compared to less-productive groups) that Larson
and LaFasto have identified?
A. Individual members are highly committed to
their personal goals.
B. Members know why their group exists.
C. The group has a clear pattern of
organization that all members understand and follow.
D. The group receives recognition by outsiders.
E. The group has a leader who creates a vision
of the group’s purpose.
25. Virtual teams are becoming part of today’s
workplace. Which of the following statements about virtual teams is
FALSE?
A. Status differences are less prominent in
virtual teams than in face-to-face teams.
B. It is more difficult to maintain team
spirit in virtual teams than in face-to-face teams.
C. Virtual teams have not been able to
overcome the difficulties of working with members from different time zones.
D. Virtual teams perform best when members
have some means of creating a personal
touch.
26. The trait approach to leadership
A. emphasizes laissez-faire leadership.
B. is a contingency approach.
C. is based on the belief that all leaders
possess certain traits that lead to their effectiveness.
D. follows the life-cycle theory.
E. can easily predict who will be the leader.
27. According to Blake and Mouton’s leadership
grid, a leader who uses an “authority compliance” form of management
would typically
A. focus on maintaining satisfying
relationships among team members.
B. exert minimal effort and let members work
on their own.
C. emphasize commitment and trust, thus
accomplishing results.
D. seek efficiency, placing little emphasis on
members’ individual and relational concerns.
E. balance task and relational needs.
28. According to recent research on contingency
approaches, which leadership style is most effective?
A. democratic
B. authoritarian
C. laissez-faire
D. maintenance-oriented
E. Effectiveness depends on the situation and
the maturity of group.
29. According to Bormann’s “method of
residues,” potential candidates for emergent leaders are likely to remain
in the running for leadership if
A. they are flexible.
B. they are too quiet.
C. they are dogmatic.
D. they are incompetent in skills.
E. they are intellectually incompetent.
30. The vice president of Neo Systems runs a
tight ship and makes sure that her top management team does what she wants it
to. If any member raises issues, she fires that member. She exerts ________
power.
A. coercive
B. reward
C. referent
D. connection
E. expert
31. A coach of a football team has found that
players comply with his rules and policies because they appreciate the way he
often praises their individual efforts in front of the team. This coach
possesses ________ power.
A. reward
B. expert
C. position
D. coercive
E. information
32. Referent power is a function of
A. a person’s job title.
B. the punishment a person can impose.
C. a person’s intelligence.
D. the degree to which a person is respected.
33. You are on a team of students who are using
the reflective-thinking sequence to select the communication text for next
year’s students. Currently, your team is completing the third step, identifying
the criteria to use when you compare possible textbooks. Which of the following
statements would NOT be relevant to the criterion-setting stage of the reflective-thinking
sequence?
A. I like this book best.
B. The information in the book we choose
should be accurate.
C. The text we choose should be written so
it’s interesting to read.
D. We should consider the price of the text.
E. The content of the text we choose should be
up to date.
34. All
the following methods can help improve performance during the storming phase except:
A. Ask
members to explain why others’ ideas are useful.
B. Support
the expression of different viewpoints.
C. Seek
to gain as much personal influence as you can.
D. Openly
discuss the group’s process for solving problems.
35. The stage of group problem solving in which
members end disagreement and solve the problem or accept the decision is called
the _________ phase.
A. orientation
B. conflict
C. emergence
D. reinforcement
36. Which of the following BEST characterizes
the functional role analysis perspective of groups?
A. Leadership must be performed only by
designated leaders.
B. The functions necessary for getting a job
done can be shared among group members.
C. Unpopular group members rarely contribute
to the group process.
D. One’s leadership ability rises in
proportion to one’s salary.
E. Influence can be possessed by only one
person at a time.
37. As discussed in the text, two functions of
group roles are
A. official and unofficial.
B. paid and unpaid.
C. voluntary and coercive.
D. task and relational.
E. amateur and professional.
38. Summarizer and opinion seeker are examples
of _________ functions.
A. social
B. solution
C. task
D. coercive
39. “Why don’t we look at this problem from
a different angle?” “Perhaps we should move on.” “Instead
of starting out with a speech, we could . . . ” The above examples
illustrate which task function?
A. gatekeeper
B. direction giver
C. elaborator-clarifier
D. recognition seeker
E. energizer
40. According to functional role analysis,
specific interactions that focus on the job at hand are known as
A. transactional functions.
B. task functions.
C. social functions.
D. symmetrical functions.
41. Which group function is aimed at supporting
cooperative and harmonious relationships?
A. relational function
B. task function
C. interdependence
D. self-centered function
42. The decision mode in which all members agree
(at least to some extent) is known as
A. consensus.
B. yes-yes.
C. concurrence.
D. complementarity.
E. productivity.
43. According to the textbook, which of the
following is true of the authority-rule decision-making method?
A. It works well only for relatively minor
issues.
B. The designated leader makes the final
decision.
C. All of the suggestions supplied by
subordinates are incorporated into the discussion.
D. The designated leader uses an autocratic
style.
44. Which of the following would NOT increase
cohesiveness in a group?
A. competing individual goals
B. progress toward group goals
C. shared norms and values
D. threats from outside the group
E. shared group experiences
45. Personal goals that are NOT made public are called
A. hidden agendas.
B. personal memos.
C. private goals.
D. secret targets.
46. Behaviors that groups develop by agreement
or over time as acceptable ways for doing things (e.g. dress styles, formality
of communication) are called
A. norms.
B. roles.
C. systems.
D. interdependency.
47. Groupthink refers to
A. a desirable condition in which each member
of the group engages in critical thinking.
B. a desirable condition, because the group is
able to make decisions quickly, guided by the members with the most expertise.
C. an undesirable condition, because members
feel too intimidated to express the dissent they feel about proposals.
D. an undesirable condition, because groups
that spend too much time listening to members’ various ideas are too slow to
take action.
48. All of the following are signs of groupthink
except:
A. freedom to voice dissenting ideas
B. pressure on dissenters to agree with the
group
C. a false illusion that the group agrees
unanimously
D. a belief that our group is superior to
competitors
E. a lack of deliberation on the issues
49. When there’s a crisis or urgent deadline,
members of a group that is using groupthink are likely to:
A. seek new ideas and ways of looking at
things.
B. be closed to new and difficult ideas.
C. seek outsiders’ opinions.
D. encourage members to voice a variety of
opinions.
E. ponder possible drawbacks of their proposed
solution.
50. Which of the following describes the
brainstorming process?
A. Focus on quantity, not quality, of ideas
during the first stage of the brainstorming process.
B. Briefly evaluate each idea as soon as it’s
stated.
C. Discourage wild or crazy ideas.
D. Do not combine ideas.
E. Discard ideas that don’t meet with instant
approval from all group members.
Chapter 9:
51. Loretta
is a member of a small research team that is working on developing a vaccine
for swine flu. Once a week team members meet to share their most recent
findings. These gatherings illustrate the _________________ function of
meetings.
A. information-sharing
B. problem-solving
C. decision-making
D. ritual
activity
52. A small team of salesmen
were having a problem with their current product. They decided to have a
meeting to develop potential solutions and to eliminate the existing flaws. As
a result of their meeting, the company implemented the suggestions they
offered, which led to a significant increase in their sales. According to the
text, which of the following types of meetings did this group of salesmen
engage in?
A. information-sharing
B. problem-solving/decision-making
C. ritual
activity
D. elimination
protocol
53. If a
meeting served a social rather than a task function, which type of meeting
would it be?
A. information-sharing
B. problem-solving
C. decision-making
D. ritual
activity
54. All
of the following are guidelines for constructive reframing except:
A. Ask the complainer to be quiet until they
have something nice to say.
B. Restate personal attacks so the focus is on
issues instead.
C. Point out that individual concerns are also
group concerns.
D. Turn complaints about the past into hopes
for the future.
55. Which
of the following is true about telephone conferences?
A. Telephone conferences
are quite expensive to operate.
B. Telephone conferences
are often overlooked as a useful way for groups with distant members to hash
out details.
C. Members must go
through extensive training before using a telephone conference.
D. Meetings conducted by
telephone conferences require more time than meetings conducted by e-mail.
56. All
of the following are useful guidelines for conducting videoconferences except:
A. Participants should
identify themselves and their location at the beginning of the meeting.
B. Turn off cell phone
ringers before the meeting begins.
C. Any documents that
will be discussed should be sent ahead of time to all participants.
D. To allow participants
of any socioeconomic status to participate, use the least expensive equipment
you can find.
57. A
meeting should probably be avoided if
A. the
items to be covered don’t require discussion or decision.
B. the
job requires input from a variety of people.
C. participants
are likely to suggest controversial solutions.
D. the
decision to be made will require creative solutions.
58. In
which of the following situations would it be best to call a meeting rather
than to send a memo?
A. The
information that is being communicated is controversial.
B. Some
key people are not available to attend the meeting.
C. Members
do not have time to prepare for the meeting.
D. The
reason for meeting would be routine (e.g., reading progress reports).
59. All
of the following are ways members can help make a meeting successful,
except:
A. Seek
clarification on the goal of the meeting.
B. Volunteer
to be a timekeeper.
C. If
there is no agenda, suggest canceling the meeting.
D. Doodle
during the meeting, so you will appear busy.
60. Which
of the following questions is NOT recommended as a method for building an
agenda?
A. What
information will we need?
B. How
can I prevent others from raising controversial points during the meeting?
C. What
do we need to do in the meeting to achieve our objective?
D. What
conversations will be important to the people who attend?
61. Goal
descriptions for agenda items should be _________.
A. result-oriented
B. demanding
C. process-driven
D. generic
62. The
concept of a bell-shaped agenda means that
A. The
group should appoint one member who will act as a timer, ringing a bell or
buzzer when it is time to move on the next item.
B. Every
third item on an agenda should be easy to complete so that the group will feel
a sense of success as it moves through the agenda.
C. The
more time-consuming and difficult agenda items should be handled in the middle
third of the meeting.
D. The
agenda should be distributed to the group three days before the meeting, and
the minutes should be distributed three days after the meeting.
63. Which of the following
is NOT one of the activities suggested for the opening moments of a
meeting?
A. Outline the contributions members should
make.
B. Explain the goals of the meeting.
C. Use relay questions to encourage all
members to participate in the opening.
D. Identify how much time is structured for
the meeting.
64. When a meeting is
conducted according to parliamentary procedure, all of the following items are
included on the standard meeting agenda except
A. old
business.
B. new
business.
C. unfinished
business.
D. minutes.
65. When
you are using parliamentary procedure, to introduce a motion means
A. to
call the meeting to a close.
B. to
decide to vote on an issue.
C. to
give the floor to a new speaker.
D. to
introduce a specific proposal for action.
66. When
a group uses the nominal group technique (NGT) method
A. ideas,
along with their authors, are posted for all to see.
B. evaluation
of ideas is conducted orally.
C. each
member privately rank-orders the ideas that have been posted.
D. the
final decision is made by majority rule.
67. Which
of the following discussion methods tends to result in unbalanced
participation?
A. nominal
group technique
B. a
loosely structured informal meeting
C. asking
questions that draw out silent members
D. having
members take turns
68. If
Consuelo refers questions from individual group members back to the entire
group instead of answering them herself, she is using
______________questions?
A. overhead
B. direct
C. reverse
D. relay
69. What
type of questions would most likely encourage comments from normally quiet
people?
A. overhead
questions
B. direct
questions
C. reverse
questions rephrased as overhead questions
D. relay
questions
70. During
a meeting, if the discussion rambles on after a decision has been made,
A. let
the discussion occur, because it is beneficial.
B. ask
the talkative member to be quiet.
C. summarize
what has taken place in the meeting, then redirect the discussion.
D. change
the subject.
71. The
recommended method for responding to an apparently stupid idea is to
A. asking
others to enhance its value by building on it.
B. explain
why the idea won’t work.
C. say,
“That’s a good idea.”
D. take
an immediate vote on the idea.
72. You
can enhance the value of members’ comments by
A. acknowledging
the merits of their idea.
B. explaining
any concerns you might have.
C. asking
others for suggestions that build on the idea.
D. integrating
all three of these into a three-part response.
73. All
of the following are appropriate reasons for concluding a meeting except:
A. Controversy has arisen because people have
different ideas about how to proceed.
B. The agenda has been covered.
C. The scheduled closing time has arrived.
D. The group needs additional information in
order to make meaningful decisions.
74. Post-meeting follow-up
activities should include all the following except
A. chastising
members who were not present at the last meeting.
B. building
an agenda for the next meeting.
C. checking
to see if assigned tasks are being performed
D. completing
your own preparation for the next meeting.
75. YOU’VE WORKED HARD ON THIS EXAM AND. YOU DESERVE A FREE
POINT!!!!
BONUS QUESTIONS: Circle the
letter that corresponds to the best answer.
76. The term “emotional intelligence” refers
to
A. the ability and skill of interacting well
with others.
B. a tendency of highly intelligent people to
be emotionally imbalanced.
C. a belief that women are too emotional to be
intelligent.
D. a person’s score on the personality
questions found on most IQ tests.
77. Which is NOT a cardinal rule for brainstorming?
A. Be
noncompetitive.
B. Strive
for quantity.
C. Avoid
evaluating ideas.
D. Quickly
criticize and eliminate poor ideas.
78. Which
of the following is NOT a useful suggestion for keeping discussions on
track?
A. Remind
the group about time pressures.
B. If a
remark is irrelevant, discuss its pros and cons, and then return to the task at
hand.
C. If a
remark seems irrelevant, challenge it.
D. Summarize
the discussion and then suggest moving on to the next task.
